Hello, I am new to this site and need help on the following – I know it is not legal advice just educated opinions, but any help would be great:
It refers to a disputed credit card debt that was defaulted back in January 2012 (over 6 years ago). In September 2014 the debt was sold on to a debt collection company. I wrote to the debt collection company back then which included the following paragraph:
Should you provide sufficient evidence that I owe your organisation or your client any outstanding amount and that you can provide proof that they have assigned you agency, I should be happy to pay any verified claim in full.
I have continuously asked for proof of debt between then and now. They have sent me information, but has does not included all of the information I have asked for.
They wrote back in February 2018, after the 6 year statute barred period and have stated that they consider the statute barred period has not ended because of what I wrote to them (in 2014) in italics above is acknowledgement of debt. They have basically said that they have provided the ‘evidence’ and that I had said that if they had done that I would pay. This is not what I wrote means and I think they are trying to mislead me. I basically meant that if they provide sufficient evidence – but what they have provided is insufficient in my view and this has never be put before a judge to decide.
Are they right or is this now statute barred? I know you don’t have the complete information from the last 6 years, but some opinions would be greatly appreciated. As I have already mentioned I have never acknowledged or made any payment to this debt within the last 6 years.
Thank you
